Is it true that in medieval European weaponry, a great sword is used with two hands, a bastard sword with a hand and a half, and a longsword with one hand? -
![Why is the katana (a two-handed sword) the same length as an arming sword ( one-handed), and why the nodachi would be a better two-handed sword compared to the katana? : r/SWORDS Why is the katana (a two-handed sword) the same length as an arming sword ( one-handed), and why the nodachi would be a better two-handed sword compared to the katana? : r/SWORDS](https://preview.redd.it/5b72ldo4j6j81.png?width=640&crop=smart&auto=webp&s=487683715b5387e64708ca09f44160c3b4234188)
Why is the katana (a two-handed sword) the same length as an arming sword ( one-handed), and why the nodachi would be a better two-handed sword compared to the katana? : r/SWORDS
![Practical Hand-and-a-Half Sword | Buy Medieval Re-enactment Swords from our UK Store | The HEMA Shop Practical Hand-and-a-Half Sword | Buy Medieval Re-enactment Swords from our UK Store | The HEMA Shop](https://www.thehemashop.com/media/catalog/product/cache/3/image/650x/20737efe5af96e140e6c181cee6f11d7/s/h/sh2106_4_.png)